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Matthew says that biblical writers never addressed committed same-sex relationships between people who have a “fixed sexual orientation”.
I heard that historians say there never was such a thing as a “fixed sexual orientation” in the minds of the people of the ancient world–that the way people saw it was that they would engage in various acts (fluid sexuality?) but that they never saw homosexuality as a “fixed sexual orientation”.
DB, keep in mind that there are few unbiased people around. Sure there will be historians who will say there was never was such a thing as a “fixed sexual orientation” in the minds of the people of the ancient world. But there will be other historians who will disagree. Read Plato’s Symposium, and see if you agree with those historians. If they never thought of it as a fixed orientation, why did the Babylonian Talmud make reference to same-sex marriage?
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